Does the Samaritan woman refuse Jesus’ request for a
drink of water?
Not necessarily. The woman sounds surprised that a Jew would even ask a
drink from a Samaritan.
Why do you think Jesus asked the Samaritan woman for water?
If He really had been after a drink, He would have driven the conversation
toward it (see below).
Why did “Jews have no dealings with Samaritans” (John 4:9)?
See
Samaria and
2 Kings 17.
What “living water” (John 4:10) is Jesus talking about?
John 4:14 says it will lead to “everlasting life,”
so Jesus is talking about His salvation (see
Rivers of Living Water).
How would you characterize their conversation up to John 4:15?
Jesus is speaking about the spiritual realm but the Samaritan woman can’t get past the physical realm.
Why the abrupt change in topic in John 4:16?
The Samaritan woman’s understanding is blocked by a particular sin, so Jesus pinpoints it to take it out of the way.
What was that sin?
Adultery. She had “had five husbands” (John
4:18), and the one she was now with wasn’t her husband.
Being with a man who isn’t her husband is self-explanatory but what’s wrong
with her having had five husbands?
It would be okay if she was a five-time widow but the context and her
reaction make this unlikely. Chances are, she had been divorced a number of
times and/or been with men who weren’t her husband.
ανδρας (andras), the original Greek word translated
“husbands” in this passage more commonly means “men,” so John 4:18
could very well have read, “for you have had five men, and
he whom you now have is not your husband...”
What do you think of the Samaritan woman’s reply in John 4:19? What would
most women have said?
Instead of lashing out in indignation at a stranger for exposing her intimate sins,
the Samaritan woman
tacitly admits them and humbles herself, and starts to see Jesus in spiritual light:
“Sir, I perceive that You are a prophet” (John 4:19).
When someone alerts you about your sins, do you repent or
retaliate?