Son of Man

Who is the Son of Man?

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John 5 Bible Study
John 5:14-25 Sin No More

John 5:26-38 Son of Man

John 5:39-47 Search the Scriptures
JOHN 5:26-28  26 For as the Father has life in Himself, so He has granted the Son to have life in Himself, 27 and has given Him authority to execute judgment also, because He is the Son of Man.

Why does Jesus refer to Himself as the “Son of Man” in John 5:27?
"Son of Man" is how the prophet Daniel referred to God the Son at the throne of God the Father, whom he called, "Ancient of Days", in heaven: "I was watching in the night visions, and behold, One like the Son of Man, coming with the clouds of heaven! He came to the Ancient of Days, and they brought Him near before Him. Then to Him was given dominion and glory and a kingdom, that all peoples, nations, and languages should serve Him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom the one which shall not be destroyed." (Daniel 7:13-14) The Jews were well versed in the Old Testament and would have recognized right away Jesus' declaration of being the "Son of Man" Daniel had described.

JOHN 5:28-30  28 Do not marvel at this; for the hour is coming in which all who are in the graves will hear His voice 29 and come forth - those who have done good, to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil, to the resurrection of condemnation. 30 I can of Myself do nothing. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is righteous, because I do not seek My own will but the will of the Father who sent Me.

Where do the resurrections of life and condemnation lead to?
Heaven and hell, respectively.

Who can just stay dead?
Nobody: "all" (John 5:28) will "come forth" (John 5:29) and be resurrected.

What does it mean to "have done good” (John 5:29)?
"Then they said to Him, 'What shall we do, that we may work the works of God?' Jesus answered and said to them, 'This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He sent.'" (John 6:28-29)

JOHN 5:31-35  31 If I bear witness of Myself, My witness is not true. 32 There is another who bears witness of Me, and I know that the witness which He witnesses of Me is true. 33 You have sent to John, and he has borne witness to the truth. 34 Yet I do not receive testimony from man, but I say these things that you may be saved. 35 He was the burning and shining lamp, and you were willing for a time to rejoice in his light.

What is Jesus saying in John 5:31?
He’s citing a Jewish legal principle, that uncorroborated testimony doesn’t count.

Who is "the truth" in John 5:33?
It's Jesus Himself as per John 14:6 - "Jesus said to him, “I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me."

So what is Jesus saying in John 5:32-35?
John the Baptist’s testimony already satisfies the above legal principle. They listened to John for a while. He "bore witness" (John 5:33) of Jesus but they missed it, so they should go back to John's words and start over. And Jesus isn't saying this because He needs a testimony from a man, but for their sake, "that you may be saved." (John 5:34)

JOHN 5:36-38  36 But I have a greater witness than John’s; for the works which the Father has given Me to finish - the very works that I do - bear witness of Me, that the Father has sent Me. 37 And the Father Himself, who sent Me, has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His form. 38 But you do not have His word abiding in you, because whom He sent, Him you do not believe.

How does Jesus continue above?
The "greater witness" than John the Baptist's witness is the "works" (John 5:36) that Jesus is doing, which prove that the "Father has sent Me."

When has the Father "testified of" (John 5:37) Jesus?
"When He had been baptized, Jesus came up immediately from the water; and behold, the heavens were opened to Him, and He saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and alighting upon Him. And suddenly a voice came from heaven, saying, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.” (Matthew 3:16-17)

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