What did Jesus mean in John 16:16?
His impending death and resurrection, to be followed by His ascension to God
the "Father" (John 16:16) in heaven.
What will the disciples do upon His death?
They will "weep and lament, and... be sorrowful" (John 16:20).
What will happen upon His resurrection?
Their "sorrow will be turned into joy" (John 16:20) and
their hearts "will rejoice" (John 16:22).
A woman's labor gives birth to a new life. What does Jesus’ death on the cross accomplish?
Grants everlasting life to a countless number of people.
Why does Jesus refer to the "sorrow" (John 16:21) of a woman in labor?
The translated Greek word is λυπην (lupen), which can mean either "sorrow"
or "pain."
What doesn't Jesus mention?
The far greater pain that He will suffer in the coming hours.
Why?
He will talk to God the Father about that in private shortly. Here, He is
using this analogy is to give His disciples hope of what lies beyond their sorrow.
Why will "no one... take" (John 16:22) the joy
of Jesus' resurrection from His disciples?
Jesus' resurrection will prove His deity and validate everything He told
them, including about the glorious everlasting life in heaven that
awaits them after their death. Agents of Satan will attack, cause suffering
and even kill Jesus' disciples, but "... the sufferings
of this present time are not worthy to be compared with the glory which
shall be revealed in us" (Romans 8:18). The joy and hope of true
Christians are rooted in heaven, not in the remainder of earthly life, which
the Bible calls "vapor" in this sinful, fallen
world: "For what is your life? It is even a vapor that
appears for a little time and then vanishes away" (James 4:14).
What about the men who tell people to live their "best
life now"?
They are to be accursed - "But even if we, or an
angel from heaven, preach any other gospel to you than what we have
preached to you, let him be accursed. As we have said before, so now I
say again, if anyone preaches any other gospel to you than what you have
received, let him be accursed" (Galatians 1:8-9) - while those
who heed them are to be pitied: "If in this life
only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men the most pitiable"
(1 Corinthians 15:19).
To what "day" (John 16:23) is Jesus referring?
Three days in the future, by which time He will have paid on the cross the
death penalty due for their sins, thereby eliminating the blockage between
them and God the Father, and have risen from the dead to prove His claims
about His deity and the purpose of His sacrifice on the cross.
Why must Christians "ask the Father" in Jesus' "name"?
If you request an audience with a foreign head of state, your request will
be denied unless you do so as an emissary of your own head of state. Then
the audience will be granted, not because of who you are on your own, but because
of to whom you belong. God the Father will hear you not because you are
worthy to approach Him on your own but because you belong to Jesus and come in His name.
Will God the Father really give us "whatever" (John
16:23) we ask in Jesus' name?
See next page.