Is it possible that the original Greek translated, "I am
the way, the truth, and the life" in John 14:6 actually says, "I am a way, a
truth, and a life"?
In the original Greek, the words translated
"way," "truth," and "life"
in John 14:6 are each
preceded by the definite article, "the" -
η (hE) - so "I
am the way, the truth, and the life" is the correct translation.
What about the latter half of John 14:6, which reads,
"No one comes to the Father except through Me"?
ει μη (ei me), the original Greek phrase
translated "except," literally means "if not," so the latter
half of John 14:6 could have been translated, "No one
comes to the Father if not through Me," or more idiomatically,
"No one comes to the Father except through Me."
So what did Jesus mean by what He said as recorded in John 14:6?
To get to God the Father in heaven, a person must believe in Him. Without
believing in Jesus, a person cannot go to heaven. There is no other way.
Why not?
For sinful human beings to be with the holy and sinless God in
heaven, the penalty due for our sins must be paid. That penalty is death, to
be paid by either the sinner or on behalf of the sinner by someone who is
sinless and doesn't have his own sins to die for. Only Jesus was sinless
so only He was qualified to pay and did pay the death penalty due for our sins: "For the wages of sin
is death, but the gift of God is everlasting life in Christ Jesus our Lord"
(Romans 6:23).
Then what about all of the religions that claim there are other ways?
Either Jesus is lying and all of those religions are right, or Jesus is right and all
of those religions are lying.
Why would so many religions lie?
Satan's endeavor to draw people away from "the
way" includes putting up as many fake ways as possible.
Whom do we need to go through first to get to Jesus?
Nobody, and anybody who tells you that you need to go through them to get to
Jesus contradicts Jesus. Anyone who believes in Jesus as per the
Bible has direct, personal access to Him, as a bride has to her bridegroom.